Jesus Prophesied the Rapture

by David Weimer

The issue of whether the Olivet Discourse speaks of the rapture is not merely my pet peeve; it raises some questions about apparent contradictions. I have heard it taught by Baptists, including my pastor, that verses 36-51 of Matthew 24 do not refer in any way to the rapture. Their argument is that Christ did not have the rapture in view during this sermon – that He speaks of that matter in His later message in the Upper Room. I acknowledge that Jesus was not speaking to the church, but He was speaking to believing Jews -- His disciples.
For clarity, allow me to define a couple of terms so that I will not be misunderstood below. “Phase 1” will refer to the first part of Christ’s second coming, which we all call the “rapture” (His return for believers occurring prior to the tribulation period to resurrect and/or glorify the physical bodies of believers and bring them back to Heaven with Him). “Phase 2” will refer to the second part of Christ’s second coming, which is often called the “second advent” (His return with believers to defeat Satan’s armies, rescue His chosen people, and establish His earthly reign at Jerusalem, among other things).
Obviously, verses 4-34 speak of the events/signs leading up to Phase 2. These verses seem to answer the disciples’ second question, “What will be the sign of Your coming and the end of the age?” Of course, all things that must occur prior to and during the tribulation period are the “signs.” There are all kinds of signs for Phase 2 and signs for the tribulation (such as the regathering of Jews in Israel).
Verse 35 seems to be a transitional verse looking beyond the Millennium when Heaven and Earth will be destroyed and remade (but God’s Word will never change). It seems like a pause would naturally fit between verses 35 and 36 (a "selah"). This same sense is felt in the Mark and Luke versions of this sermon.
Then, verse 36 starts with, “But of that day....” After speaking about things that lead up to Phase 2, Jesus seems to present a broader view of the last days. “That day” does not seem to refer to the day “heaven and earth will pass away” (v35), nor does it seem to fit Phase 2, which is the “it” in v33: “when you see all these things, know that it [Phase 2] is near—at the doors!”
I believe verse 36 is where Jesus begins to answer the disciples’ first question, “When will these things be?” Christ answers this question by saying no man knows when (this is not for us to know), but then He describes what the conditions (not necessarily “signs,” since Phase 1 is imminent) will be like when He does return. So, “that day” refers to when all “these things” will be, starting with Phase 1 of His second coming, not with Phase 2.
v36: “But of that day and hour no one knows…” Phase 1? True. Phase 2? False. “No one”? The exact day that Phase 2 will occur can be calculated from the time Antichrist confirms a covenant with many. It will occur exactly 2520 days after the tribulation period starts (360 days x 7 years). In fact, when they see all the signs for Phase 2, they will “know that it is near—at the doors!” (v33).
v37: “But as the days of Noah were, so will the coming of the Son of Man be” Phase 1? No apparent contradiction. Phase 2? False. The last 3.5 years of the tribulation period will especially be a time of great turmoil and persecution. Jews will be in hiding. The wrath of God will be pouring out upon man. The tribulation period does not seem to have as much in common with the times prior to the Flood as it does with the times during the Flood. So, this verse speaks of the times prior to Phase 1, not Phase 2.
v38: “…eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage.” Before Phase 1? Sure, just like it is now. Before Phase 2? Doesn’t seem to match description given in Revelation.
v39: “…the flood came and took them all away, so also will the coming of the Son of Man be.” Is this Phase 2? No. At phase 2 believers return to Earth with Christ. Phase 1? Yes, believers are suddenly taken away to prepare the way for phase 2, as Noah and his family were taken out of harm's way before the Flood (judgment).
v40: “Then two men will be in the field: one will be taken, and the other left.” Phase 1? Yes, everything will seem normal and the believer is the one taken. Phase 2? Seems shaky. It may be intriguing to see this as dividing the sheep from the goats, but Matthew 25:32 (where this “dividing,” which follows Phase 2, is clearly indicated) states the Lord will “set the sheep on His right hand, and the goats on the left.” It does not say that the Lord “takes them all away.”
Verse 40 does not indicate where the one will be taken – Heaven or Hell? So this is tricky. In verse 39, is it the ark that took all the believers out of the way (to make way for God’s wrath), or is it the Flood that took all the unbelievers away? At the end of the tribulation, will two men be in the field (I assume working, as if nothing unusual were about to happen) or will one be “hiding out in the mountains” and the other joining Antichrist’s army to do battle against Jesus and His chosen people? At Phase 2, will the Son of Man be coming to take them all away or coming to destroy them? It is important to remember that the "redeemed" were removed from Sodom before God's wrath was poured out.
v41: “Two women will be grinding at the mill: one will be taken and the other left.” Same questions as those for v40… Who is taken and where are they taken? Seems like a “Phase 1” interpretation of these verses is much more reasonable.
v42: “Watch therefore...” Phase 1? Yes, watch for Christ and His sudden, unexpected return, which can occur at any moment. No signs are necessary for Phase 1 – everything will seem “normal.” Phase 2? Watch for what or for whom? Watch for Antichrist, signs, etc.? All these things must come to pass before phase 2. Luke 21:36 says, “Watch… that ye may be accounted worthy to escape all these things that shall come to pass…” Here “watching” is clearly associated with Phase 1 (not Phase 2), for the only escape is Phase 1!
v44: “Therefore you also be ready, for the Son of Man is coming at an hour you do not expect.” Phase 1? True – be ready; be right with God. Phase 2? This seems to be a strange thing to say. Why not just reiterate the signs and Daniel’s prophecy, so the reader will know exactly when to expect Christ’s return? This suggests, on the one hand, that there is no way for anyone to know when Phase 2 will take place, but on the other hand, everyone living during the tribulation period, even unbelievers (including Antichrist, False Prophet, and Satan) will be anticipating the exact day of Phase 2. Seems like a blatant contradiction to me.
Well, that presents most of the difficulties I have with the “Phase 2 only” interpretation of the Olivet Discourse. I believe these difficulties go away when we assume Christ had both phases of His second coming in view – He just happened to talk about Phase 2 first, which is His prerogative. The “Phase 2 only” interpretation of the Olivet Discourse will continue to confound me, while the “Phase 2 and Phase 1” interpretation seems to fit perfectly.